These 25 Polity MCQs have appeared repeatedly in UPSC Prelims and SSC exams from 2020 to 2025. Master them once, and you’ll score 10+ free marks every year — no guesswork needed.
1 The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ was propounded in which case?
Answer: B. Kesavananda Bharati Case
Appeared in UPSC 2021, 2023, 2025 and SSC CGL 2022, 2024.
2 Which Article provides for the Finance Commission?
Answer: C. Article 280
Asked in UPSC 2020, 2022, 2024 and SSC CHSL 2023.
3 The ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ is under:
Answer: A. Article 32
Dr. Ambedkar called it the “heart and soul” of the Constitution. Repeated every year.
4 Which Schedule deals with Rajya Sabha seat allocation?
Answer: B. Fourth Schedule
SSC loves this — appeared in CGL 2020, 2022, 2024.
5 ‘Doctrine of Pith and Substance’ is related to:
Answer: C. True nature of legislation
Key for federalism questions in UPSC Prelims.
6 Fundamental Rights are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
Answer: B. Part III
Part III (Articles 12–35) is often called the "Magna Carta" of the Indian Constitution — a near-certain Prelims topic every year.
7 The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are borrowed from the constitution of which country?
Answer: C. Ireland
DPSPs (Part IV) were inspired by the Irish Free State Constitution of 1937 — a classic "which country inspired which feature" question.
8 Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which Amendment?
Answer: A. 42nd Amendment, 1976
Added as Part IV-A (Article 51A) on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. The 42nd Amendment is also called the "Mini Constitution" for its sweeping changes.
9 Under which Article can the President promulgate Ordinances?
Answer: B. Article 123
Article 123 covers Presidential ordinances; Article 213 is the parallel Governor's power at the state level — the two are frequently mixed up in options.
10 Who appoints the Governor of a State?
Answer: C. President of India
Under Article 155, the Governor is appointed by the President and holds office at the President's pleasure (Article 156).
11 What is the minimum age required to become President of India?
Answer: C. 35 years
Article 58. A common trap: 25 years is the minimum for the Lok Sabha, 30 for the Rajya Sabha — exams love testing all three together.
12 A Money Bill is defined under which Article of the Constitution?
Answer: B. Article 110
A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha cannot amend it — high-frequency in both Polity and current-affairs-linked questions.
13 What is the term of office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
Answer: B. 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier
Article 148. The CAG is described by Dr. Ambedkar as one of the most important officers under the Constitution — a recurring Prelims favorite.
14 The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by which Amendment?
Answer: B. 44th Amendment, 1978
Property was downgraded from a Fundamental Right to a mere legal right under the new Article 300-A — a favorite "which right was removed" question.
15 The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in the Indian Constitution is inspired by the constitution of which country?
Answer: B. USA
India borrowed Judicial Review from the US Constitution, while Parliamentary government was borrowed from the UK — a classic pairing question.
16 Article 356 of the Constitution deals with:
Answer: C. President's Rule in a state
Invoked on failure of constitutional machinery in a state; famously scrutinized in the S.R. Bommai case (1994), which limited its misuse.
17 Which Amendment lowered the voting age in India from 21 to 18 years?
Answer: B. 61st Amendment, 1988
Amended Article 326. A straightforward but consistently repeated static-GK-style Polity question.
18 The Election Commission of India is established under which Article?
Answer: B. Article 324
Article 324 gives the ECI superintendence, direction, and control over elections — frequently paired with questions on the CEC's tenure and removal process.
19 Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer: C. B.R. Ambedkar
Dr. Rajendra Prasad chaired the Constituent Assembly itself, while Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired its Drafting Committee — a common mix-up exams exploit.
20 The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution is significant because it:
Answer: B. Protects certain laws from judicial review on Fundamental Rights grounds
Added by the 1st Amendment (1951); the I.R. Coelho case (2007) later held that Ninth Schedule laws are still subject to Basic Structure review.
21 Article 44 of the Constitution, as a Directive Principle, calls for:
Answer: B. A Uniform Civil Code
A recurring current-affairs-linked static question given the ongoing UCC debate (see our Current Affairs notes on the topic).
22 The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 relates to:
Answer: A. Panchayati Raj Institutions
Gave constitutional status to rural local self-government (added Part IX). Its urban counterpart, the 74th Amendment, covers Municipalities — always tested as a pair.
23 The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 relates to:
Answer: B. Municipalities
Added Part IX-A, giving constitutional status to urban local bodies — the direct urban counterpart of the 73rd Amendment above.
24 India's anti-defection law was introduced through which Schedule?
Answer: C. Tenth Schedule
Added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985. A near-guaranteed question whenever defection cases are in the news — pair it with the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992).
25 Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right under the Indian Constitution?
Answer: C. Right to Property
Ties directly back to Q14 above — since the 44th Amendment (1978), Right to Property is only a legal right under Article 300-A, not a Fundamental Right.
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